General Security Concepts | Test-3
This section focuses on evaluating foundational security practices and principles across the entire system. Tests include assessing the applicationโs adherence to the CIA triad (Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability), evaluating security policies, and verifying compliance with industry standards and regulations. It also covers risk management processes, incident response readiness, data classification, and the use of secure development frameworks. Additionally, this section examines overall security awareness and the applicationโs resilience to common threats such as malware, insider threats, and social engineering attacks.
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1. When a scanning tool, web application firewall (WAF), or intrusion prevention system (IPS) mistakenly flags a security vulnerability during software testing, this is referred to as a ________. Choose the right term.
A false positive occurs when a security tool incorrectly identifies a normal or non-vulnerable condition as a security vulnerability. In the context of scanning tools, web application firewalls (WAF), or intrusion prevention systems (IPS), a false positive means that the system has flagged something as a threat when, in fact, it is not.
Hereโs a brief overview of the other options:
The correct answer is False negatives.
A false negative occurs when a security scanner or test fails to detect a vulnerability or defect that actually exists in the program. This is a significant issue because it gives the impression that the system is secure when, in fact, there are undetected problems.
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2. When security scanners and tests are run, _______ occur when problems are missed despite the presence of defects or vulnerabilities in the program being evaluated.
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3. A ______ is a genuine attack that sets off an alert. You are alerted by a brute-force alarm. When you investigate the alert, you learn that someone was attempting to use brute-force tactics to hack into one of your systems
The phrase โTrue positivesโ correctly fills the blank
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4. ______is a social engineering attack in which attackers send emails or text messages that appear to be from a legitimate source in order to trick the recipient into clicking on a malicious link or providing sensitive information
Except phishing, all other are types of viruses
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5. _________ refers to the process of conducting thorough assessments and investigations to ensure that appropriate security measures are in place to protect sensitive information and mitigate potential risks. It involves assessing risks, complying with regulations, evaluating third-party security, conducting security audits, preparing for incidents, and promoting employee awareness. By performing this, organizations can identify and address security risks, comply with regulations, and protect sensitive information, thereby maintaining trust and confidence.
Due diligence fits the description in question
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6. A polymorphic virus __________.
A polymorphic virus is a type of computer virus that can change its code or appearance while maintaining its original function. The ability to alter its code helps the virus evade detection by traditional antivirus software that relies on signature-based detection methods. Polymorphic viruses use various techniques, such as encryption or code obfuscation, to create multiple, slightly different versions of themselves. This dynamic behavior makes it challenging for antivirus programs to recognize and block every variant, making polymorphic viruses more resilient against detection and removal efforts.
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7. _________makes sure that no party can refute that it transmitted or received a communication using encryption and/or digital signatures, or that it accepted certain material. It also cannot deny the authenticity of its signature on a document.
The correct answer is Non-repudiation.
Non-repudiation ensures that a party involved in a communication or transaction cannot deny the authenticity of their actions, such as sending, receiving, or signing a message. This is typically achieved using encryption techniques and digital signatures, which provide proof of the origin and integrity of the data.
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8. Which of the following software security risks can arise from verbose error messages and unhandled exceptions?
Information disclosure refers to the unauthorized or unintended release of sensitive or confidential information to individuals or entities that should not have access to it. This can occur through various means, such as security vulnerabilities, data breaches, or human error. Information disclosure poses a significant risk to the confidentiality of data, as it may lead to the exposure of private or confidential information to unauthorized parties.
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9. In a legally binding contract known as ____________also called a confidentiality agreement, one party agrees to divulge to another party confidential information about its products or business in exchange for the receiving party’s promise not to share the information with anyone else for a predetermined period of time. By clearly defining what information must be kept secret and what information can be disclosed or made public, these contracts are used to safeguard sensitive data and intellectual property (IP).
NDA matches the description mentioned in the question
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10. Without availability, even if you have met the other two requirements of the CIA Triad, your business can be safe
The false statement in question suggests that, even if confidentiality and integrity are maintained, the absence of availability would not impact the security of a business. However, availability is critical because if systems or data are not available when needed, it can lead to significant business disruptions, financial losses, and potential reputational damage. A denial-of-service (DoS) attack or any other event that compromises availability can be just as detrimental to an organization as breaches in confidentiality or integrity.
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11. Which of the following best represents a detective control?
Audit trails are detective controls because they serve to detect and investigate security incidents by recording and monitoring events within a system, helping identify unauthorized activities and deviations from security policies.
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12. What type of security control is deployed when a user account gets locked after certain allowed attempts?
User account lockout is a preventive control because it helps prevent unauthorized access by temporarily disabling an account after a certain number of unsuccessful login attempts. This measure safeguards against brute-force attacks and unauthorized access attempts, enhancing the overall security of user accounts.
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13. The security analyst recognizes the need to embed information inside another digital audio, video, or image signal in order to ensure the confidentiality of copyright information. This is generally known as:
Watermarking is the process of embedding a visible or invisible mark or identifier into digital content, such as images, audio, video, or documents. The purpose of watermarking varies depending on the context, but it often serves as a form of protection, authentication, or attribution for the content.
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14. Which one of the following does code signing NOT provide:
User Authentication is not related to code signatures/digital signing
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15. A ___________ is a network region (a sub-network) that lies between an organization’s internal network and an external network, generally the Internet, in computer security. This contributes to the layered security architecture by providing sub-network segmentation based on security requirements or policy.
A Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) in information security is a network segment that acts as a buffer zone between an organization’s internal network and the external, untrusted network (usually the internet). The DMZ contains servers and services that need to be accessible from both internal and external networks, such as web servers, email servers, or public-facing applications. It helps enhance security by isolating these services from the internal network, reducing the risk of direct attacks on sensitive internal systems.
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16. _______ means that an organization did all that it could have reasonably done to try and prevent security breaches/compromises/disasters, and taken the necessary steps required as countermeasures/controls. The benefit of this can be seen as the difference between the damage with or without these safeguards in place.
The correct answer is Due Care.
Due care refers to the actions that an organization takes to ensure that it has implemented reasonable safeguards and countermeasures to protect against security breaches, compromises, or disasters. It involves the proactive steps required to mitigate risks and reduce the impact of potential threats. The goal of due care is to demonstrate that the organization acted responsibly in protecting its assets.
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17. A starting point that can be customized for an organization for a minimum security standard. Typical security configurations, Use group policies to check and enforce compliance is known as:
The correct answer is Baseline document.
A baseline document is a starting point that establishes the minimum security configurations and standards that an organization should adhere to. It can be customized for an organizationโs specific needs and typically includes security configurations, policies, and controls. Group policies and other tools can be used to check and enforce compliance with the baseline to ensure that systems meet the required security standards.
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