AppSec Leadership | Test 2
AppSec Leadership Tests are comprehensive assessments tailored for professionals who lead and manage application security initiatives. These tests are designed to evaluate a leaderโs understanding of secure software development practices, risk management, compliance frameworks, and effective strategies for mitigating security threats. By focusing on key areas such as secure SDLC, threat modeling, and policy enforcement, these tests help ensure that leaders can make informed decisions to safeguard software systems and guide their teams in building secure and resilient applications. Ideal for CISOs, security managers, and team leads, these tests empower leaders to drive security excellence throughout the software lifecycle.
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1. The process of removing private information from sensitive data sets is referred to as:
Data anonymization is the process of modifying or removing personally identifiable information (PII) from a dataset to ensure that individuals’ identities cannot be directly or indirectly identified.
Explanation of other options:
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2. Which of the following is used to convey and uphold the client’s or business’s availability requirements?
It is a contractual agreement or document that defines the expected level of service between a service provider and a customer or client. SLAs outline the specific services to be provided, the quality standards to be met, and the metrics used to measure performance and service levels.
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3. Which of the following are the potential exploits related to the Software supply chain in a DevSecOps environment?
The correct answer is All of the above.
Explanation of Potential Exploits Related to the Software Supply Chain (SSC) in a DevSecOps Environment:
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4. After a security breach or other disaster, the length of time needed for business operations to return to the normal service levels that the company anticipates is known as:
Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is a critical metric in disaster recovery and business continuity planning. It represents the targeted duration of time within which a system, service, or operation needs to be recovered and restored after a disruption or disaster occurs.
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5. A cybersecurity __________ is an assessment of an organization’s ability to protect its information and information systems from cyber threats. Which of the following term describes this definition?
Risk assessment in information security is a systematic process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating potential risks and vulnerabilities that could impact the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of an organization’s information assets. The goal of risk assessment is to understand the potential threats and their potential impact, allowing organizations to make informed decisions about how to mitigate or manage those risks effectively.
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6. ____________ are set of rules implemented to secure various types of data and infrastructure critical to an organization. They are also deployed to avoid, detect, counteract, or minimize security risks to physical property, information, computer systems, or any other assets
The correct answer is Information Security controls.
Information security controls are measures and policies put in place to protect an organization’s data and infrastructure from various security threats. They are designed to avoid, detect, counteract, or minimize security risks to physical property, information, computer systems, and other assets.
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7. _______is used to check untested or untrusted programs and is intended to prevent malware from entering the network.
Sandboxing is a security mechanism that isolates and confines applications or processes within a restricted environment, known as a “sandbox.” The purpose of sandboxing is to limit the potential damage that a program or process can cause by restricting its access to system resources and sensitive data. It acts as a virtual container where an application can run separately from the rest of the system, preventing it from affecting other processes or compromising the overall security of the system.
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8. Which among the following is a CRITICAL asset for an organization?
The correct answer is “Intellectual property.”
Intellectual property (IP) is a critical asset for an organization because it represents the organization’s unique creations, ideas, innovations, and competitive advantages. Protecting IP is crucial as its loss or theft can severely impact the company’s market position, financial standing, and long-term success.
While balance sheets, personnel, and a website are also important assets, intellectual property typically holds the most strategic value for the organization’s growth and differentiation.
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9. Which of the following is an advantage with passwords-based authentication?
Password-based authentication is considered affordable due to its simplicity, low overhead, and widespread compatibility. It is easy to implement and manage, requiring minimal infrastructure changes and benefiting from users’ familiarity with the concept. The cost-effectiveness and ease of integration into existing systems contribute to its widespread adoption.
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10. What’s the main benefit of WebAuthn compared to traditional passwords?
In short, the main benefit of WebAuthn compared to traditional passwords is enhanced security through passwordless authentication, reducing the risks associated with password-related vulnerabilities such as phishing, credential reuse, and password-based attacks.
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11. What are the various authorization mechanisms which can be typically implemented in microservices architecture?
The correct answer is Edge-level authorization and Service-level authorization.
These are the typical authorization mechanisms implemented in microservices architecture:
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12. Which mitigation measure is recommended to protect against software supply chain attacks involving dependencies?
The right mitigation measure is Caching or curating third-party packages before use.
A recommended mitigation measure to protect against software supply chain attacks involving dependencies is to cache or curate third-party packages before using them.
This involves:
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
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13. Multi-factor authentication or MFA is most closely associated to which of the following security design principles?
The correct answer is Defense in depth.
Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a security measure that adds multiple layers of protection to verify a user’s identity. This concept aligns with the defense-in-depth principle, which emphasizes implementing multiple layers of security controls to protect an organization’s assets. By requiring more than one method of authentication, MFA strengthens security by ensuring that even if one layer is compromised, additional layers still protect access.
Here’s a brief overview of the other options:
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14. Which of the following characteristics is used to verify a user’s identity through biometrics?
“Something you are” authentication refers to a category of authentication factors based on an individual’s unique physical or behavioral characteristics. This factor relies on biometric information that is inherent to a person. Examples include fingerprint recognition, iris or retina scans, facial recognition, voice recognition, and other biometric traits. “Something you are” authentication provides a high level of security as it is difficult to replicate or share these unique attributes.
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15. The main goal of adopting Single Sign On (SSO) functionality is to:
The main goal of creating Single Sign-On (SSO) functionality is to allow users to access multiple systems or applications with a single set of login credentials, streamlining the authentication process and enhancing user convenience while maintaining security.
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16. When selling Commercially Off the Shelf (COTS) software, which of the following is the software vendorโs primary consideration?
The correct answer is “Intellectual Property protection.”
When selling Commercially Off the Shelf (COTS) software, the vendorโs primary consideration is typically Intellectual Property (IP) protection, as it ensures that their proprietary code, innovations, and competitive advantages are legally safeguarded from unauthorized use, replication, or distribution.
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17. This is a widely used access control mechanism that restricts access to computer resources based on individuals or groups with defined business functions, access rights are granted based on defined business functions, rather than individualsโ identity or seniority. The goal is to provide users only with the data they need to perform their jobsโand no more.
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is a security model where access permissions are assigned based on an individual’s role or responsibilities within an organization. Users are granted access based on their roles, streamlining administration and improving security by ensuring that individuals have appropriate permissions for their job functions.
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18. The drawback of using open-source software from a security standpoint is
The correct answer is the attacker can assess the exploitability of the code by looking at the source code.
This statement highlights a potential security drawback of open-source software: because the source code is publicly available, attackers can analyze it for vulnerabilities and exploit them. While the transparency of open-source software can lead to more eyes on the code and potentially faster identification of security issues, it also means that malicious actors can easily find weaknesses.
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19. The guidelines for biometric authentication prescribed by the Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) are:
The correct answer is “FIPS 201.”
FIPS 201 is the Federal Information Processing Standard that provides guidelines for biometric authentication and the Personal Identity Verification (PIV) of federal employees and contractors. It outlines the requirements for using biometrics, such as fingerprints or facial recognition, as part of identity verification in secure environments.
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20. What is the core principle of federated identity?
Federated identity is a system where a user’s authentication and authorization information can be shared across multiple independent but interconnected systems or applications. It enables users to access various services with a single set of credentials, enhancing convenience and user experience while maintaining security.
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21. A _______ is like a secure, electronic fingerprint for your digital documents or messages. It’s a unique bit of code attached to the document that verifies its authenticity and integrity, proving it hasn’t been tampered with. Imagine it as a special seal on your document, but one that uses advanced cryptography instead of wax!
A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that provides a secure way to sign electronic documents or messages. It involves using a private key to generate a unique signature, which can be verified by anyone with access to the corresponding public key. Digital signatures ensure the authenticity, integrity, and non-repudiation of the signed content in digital transactions.
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22. Which among the following is the framework designed to verify and authenticate the identity of entities within the enterprise engaging in data exchange?
The correct answer is PKI (Public Key Infrastructure).
PKI is a framework that enables the verification and authentication of the identity of entities (which can include individuals, devices, or services) within an enterprise. It uses digital certificates and public-key cryptography to secure data exchange and establish trust between communicating parties.
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23. Key distribution issues arise in symmetric key systems due to __________.
Key distribution issues arise in symmetric key systems due to the challenge of securely sharing and managing a single secret key among communicating parties. The need for a secure and efficient method to distribute and update the shared key poses logistical difficulties, especially as the number of communicating entities increases. This challenge contrasts with asymmetric key systems, where public and private keys can be openly distributed without compromising security.
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24. Which option works the best to prevent social engineering attacks?
Training and awareness are effective in preventing social engineering attacks because they educate individuals about potential threats, teach them to recognize manipulation techniques, and promote a security-conscious culture. When people are informed and vigilant, they are less likely to fall victim to deceptive tactics employed by social engineers, enhancing overall organizational security.
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25. What is the most typical DoS attack warning sign?
Slow system performance can be a warning sign of a Denial of Service (DoS) attack because the attacker overwhelms the system with excessive traffic or requests, consuming resources and causing legitimate users to experience delays or service disruptions. The intentional degradation of performance is a common goal in DoS attacks, signaling a potential security threat.
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26. Which of the following is a common Access control violation:
Each of these examples describes common access control violations:
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27. _________ is a highly complex and focused cyberattack in which an unauthorized user gains access to a network and stays hidden for a long time.
An Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) is a prolonged and sophisticated cyber attack in which an unauthorized user gains access to a network or system, often with the intention of stealthily extracting sensitive information or maintaining long-term control. APTs typically involve advanced techniques, persistent efforts, and are often associated with nation-states or well-funded adversaries.
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28. In the context of secure software design, what is the primary advantage of employing threat modeling early in the development lifecycle?
The primary advantage of employing threat modeling early in the development lifecycle is it identifies potential security threats and vulnerabilities early, enabling proactive mitigation strategies
By identifying potential security threats and vulnerabilities early in the development process, threat modeling allows for the implementation of proactive mitigation strategies, reducing the likelihood of security issues later on. This helps ensure that security is built into the design from the beginning.
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29. In the context of secure software design, what does the term “secure by design” mean?
The correct answer is Integrating security measures from the beginning of the design phase.
“Secure by design” means that security considerations are integrated into the software development process from the very start, rather than being added on as an afterthought or only considered during testing. This approach aims to create a secure architecture and mitigate vulnerabilities throughout the entire software lifecycle.
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30. In SSO, What is the key difference between SP-Initiated and IdP-Initiated login flows in a SSO context?
The key difference between SP-Initiated and IdP-Initiated login flows is:
In SP-Initiated login, the Service Provider requests authentication, while in IdP-Initiated login, the Identity Provider starts the authentication process.
Explanation:
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31. Security Requirements that, when implemented, can aid in the tracing of history of events that got executed in the software are referred to as
Accountability requirements emphasize the ability to trace and attribute actions to specific users or entities, contributing to accountability and auditability.
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32. Which of the following authentication\authorization method is considered the MOST secure method for securing RESTful Webservices, but also the most complex to implement?
OAuth 2.0 provides secure delegation of user authorization, eliminating the need to store user passwords on the API server. However, its implementation complexity is higher compared to simpler methods like API keys.
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33. What type of secure coding practices should be included in software requirements?
Secure coding practices should be integrated into software requirements, and this includes code reviews, static code analysis tools, and the use of secure libraries and frameworks. A comprehensive approach that incorporates various security measures from the early stages of development contributes to building more secure and resilient software.
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34. Which approach among the following ensures the highest level of security for input validation?
The correct answer is Using a whitelist of allowed inputs.
A whitelist approach means that only predefined, acceptable input is allowed, which ensures that any input not explicitly permitted is rejected. This method is typically more secure than other approaches because it minimizes the chances of unexpected or malicious data being processed.
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35. Which of the following types of security tests is typical of when the software tester is given very little or no information about the program before he/she can test for its resilience?
The correct answer is Black box.
In black box testing, the tester has little to no knowledge of the internal workings or code of the application being tested. They focus on the inputs and outputs of the software, evaluating its functionality and resilience without any insight into the underlying code or architecture.
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36. Why is it crucial to ensure that passwords are stored in a form that is resistant to offline attacks, and what practices should be followed for secure password storage?
Ensuring that passwords are stored in a form resistant to offline attacks is crucial to prevent adversaries from easily retrieving plaintext passwords. By using techniques like salting and hashing with strong algorithms, even if attackers gain access to stored password data, they face significant hurdles in deciphering the original passwords. This enhances the security of user credentials and safeguards them from being easily compromised in the event of a data breach or unauthorized access to stored data.
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37. In the context of secure software design, what does the principle of “defense in depth” advocate for?
In the context of secure software design, the principle of “defense in depth” advocates for: Implementing multiple layers of security controls for sensitive application operations
This approach involves using a variety of security mechanisms (such as encryption, access controls, intrusion detection systems, etc.) to protect against multiple types of threats and vulnerabilities. It ensures that if one layer of security is breached or fails, other layers are in place to provide additional protection.
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38. When promoting code to production and UAT environments, it is recommended that the process should not be performed by individuals who have authored any part of the code. This practice aims to:
Preventing individuals who authored the code from promoting it to production and UAT environments mitigates potential conflicts of interest and enhances objectivity. This practice ensures a more impartial and thorough deployment process, reducing the risk of oversight or bias related to the code’s development. It promotes a separation of duties for a more robust and secure software deployment.
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39. What constitutes a denial-of-service attack?
A denial-of-service (DoS) attack occurs when malicious actors overwhelm a system, network, or service, rendering it inaccessible or unusable for legitimate users. This is typically achieved by flooding the target with excessive traffic, exploiting vulnerabilities, or causing resource exhaustion, disrupting normal functionality.
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40. Why is continuous monitoring crucial in secure software operations?
Continuous monitoring is crucial in secure software operations as it allows real-time visibility into the system’s security posture, detecting and responding to potential threats promptly. It enables the identification of vulnerabilities, security incidents, or abnormal activities, fostering a proactive approach to cybersecurity. Through continuous monitoring, organizations can ensure the ongoing effectiveness of security measures, adapt to evolving threats, and maintain a resilient operational environment.
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41. Why is it crucial to conduct regular penetration testing during secure software operations?
Regular penetration testing during secure software operations is crucial to proactively identify and address potential vulnerabilities, weaknesses, and security gaps in a system, helping organizations enhance their overall security posture and mitigate the risk of cyber threats.
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42. You’re tasked with evaluating the security posture of a legacy application. Which of the following techniques would be most effective in identifying potential vulnerabilities in the application’s codebase?
Static code analysis is the most effective technique for identifying potential vulnerabilities in a legacy application’s codebase. This method examines the source code for security flaws without executing the program, allowing for early detection of vulnerabilities and code quality issues. While dynamic code analysis, penetration testing, and vulnerability scanning are also useful, they are more suited for identifying issues during runtime or in deployed applications rather than directly analyzing the code itself.
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43. In the context of secure software development, why is it recommended to isolate UAT environments from the production network?
Isolating development environments from the production network enhances security by limiting access to authorized development and test groups. This prevents potential attackers from exploiting vulnerabilities in less securely configured development environments to discover weaknesses or gain unauthorized access to the production network. The practice ensures a more secure development process and protects the integrity of the production environment.
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44. Which OAuth 2.0 grant type is MOST commonly used in traditional web applications where the client application and the resource owner are the same entity?
The correct answer is the Resource Owner Password Credentials Grant.
Resource Owner Password Credentials Grant is commonly used in traditional web applications where the client and the resource owner (user) are the same entity. In this flow, the user’s credentials (username and password) are directly provided to the client, which exchanges them for an access token from the authorization server. This grant type is suitable when the client application is trusted, such as in traditional web apps.
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45. Which entity in OpenID Connect is responsible for authenticating the end user and issuing tokens?
The entity in OpenID Connect that is responsible for authenticating the end user and issuing tokens is the Identity Provider (IdP).
Explanation of the Other Options:
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46. What information is commonly encoded in a JWT (JSON Web Token) OAuth access token?
The correct answer is Claims about the tokenโs issuer, subject, and expiration.
A JSON Web Token (JWT) typically encodes claims, which are pieces of information about the user and the token itself. These claims can include:
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47. What is the “ID Token” in OpenID Connect?
The correct answer is: “A token containing information about the userโs authentication and identity.”
The ID Token in OpenID Connect (OIDC) is a JSON Web Token (JWT) that contains claims about the user’s authentication event and their identity. It includes information such as the user’s unique identifier (sub), when and how they were authenticated, and other identity-related data. This token is used by client applications to verify the identity of the user after the authentication process.
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48. What is the difference between an access token and a refresh token?
The key differences between an access token and a refresh token are:
Access tokens are short-lived, while refresh tokens are long-lived.
Access tokens are used to request protected resources, while refresh tokens are used to obtain new access tokens.
Access Tokens: These are short-lived tokens that are used by the client to access protected resources on a Resource Server. Once the access token expires, the client can no longer access the resource without getting a new token.
Refresh Tokens: These are long-lived tokens that allow the client to obtain new access tokens without needing to re-authenticate the user. The Authorization Server issues the refresh token along with the access token, and the refresh token is typically used when the access token expires.
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